Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 01.07.2025 10:42

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Endometriosis: difficult childhood linked with greater likelihood of being diagnosed – new research - The Conversation

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

You'll usually find your answer there.

49ers' Williams healthy, introspective in year 16 - ESPN

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

There's no rule.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Why are conservatives banning liberal books? Why are conservatives so offended by the teaching of racism and other topics?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.